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According to Judaism's defenders, the suffering servant in Isaiah 53 is Israel. They claim that when Isaiah writes, "Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?," the Gentile kings are speaking of them, God's chosen people. Contrary to the anti-missionaries' position, although Israel has suffered throughout the centuries, they simply do not fit within the context of the chapter33.
Israel has certainly been tormented and afflicted throughout their history. However, the Bible teaches that these afflictions are not the results of the sins of the Gentile nations. To the contrary, Israel's sufferings are the consequences of their own sins. In Deuteronomy 31:16-17, the LORD told Moses what would happen to His people when they would turn away from Him:
Just as the LORD told Moses, immediately after Joshua's death, Judges 2:8-14 reveals that Israel turned to other gods. Israel's rebellion continued as they refused to heed the warnings of the prophets. As a result, they have been punished for their hardness of heart. Though this is the case, the Scriptures bring some wonderful news for God's people. He will turn to them again, and honor the everlasting covenant He made with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Regarding Israel's disobedience, Zechariah 7:11-14 states:
This chapter has two major objectives. First, to supply eleven reasons why Israel cannot be the subject of Isaiah 53. Though there are probably more, these illustrations should satisfy any believer in Jesus as the suffering Messiah so that they can remain confident in their faith. The second objective is to address three of Judaism's far-reaching attempts to qualify Israel as the subject of this fourth Servant Song.
These illustrations are as follows:
According to this verse, God's suffering servant must have knowledge. This is not any knowledge, but understanding and wisdom of God and His word. If this were to apply to Israel, the Scriptures would indicate that they have knowledge. However, this is not the case! To the contrary, the Scriptures indicate that knowledge, in part, has been taken away from Israel. They are called a blinded servant having no knowledge and living in spiritual darkness (Isaiah 5:13, Isaiah 6:9-10, Isaiah 9:2 KJV, Isaiah 29:13-14, Isaiah 42:18-20, Micah 3:5-6, Hosea 4:1,6 and Romans 11:25-27). With all of this Scriptural support, how can anyone claim that Israel is the subject of Isaiah 53:11 when this verse clearly teaches that this servant must have knowledge?
The Messiah is the perfect candidate as the subject of Isaiah 53:11 because Isaiah 11:1-2 indicates that He will have the spirit of wisdom, the spirit of understanding, and the spirit of knowledge. Furthermore, Isaiah 50:4 teaches that He will have the tongue of the learned.
Though Israel is already disqualified as the subject of Isaiah's fourth Servant Song, there will come a day when they as well as the entire world will be full of the knowledge of the LORD. However, this will not occur until the Messiah, the root of Jesse, establishes His kingdom:
According to this verse, God's suffering servant must be righteous. Does righteousness apply to Israel according to the Scriptures? The following Scripture references answer this question in the negative:
These Scriptures are only some of many examples illustrating Israel's rebellion and unrighteousness. Additionally, Isaiah 48:1,8 refers to them as a "transgressor from the womb:"
How can Israel be the subject of Isaiah 53:11 when it clearly stipulates that this servant must be righteous? According to the covenant at Sinai, the children of Israel were only righteous before God when every statute and commandment was observed. Deuteronomy 6:24-25 states:
This passage explains that as long as ALL of the statutes and commandments were observed, Israel would be righteous. Since Yom Kippur is an everlasting statute (Leviticus 16:34), and Israel has not had a temple since AD 70, the children of Israel remain unrighteous without the deaths of the animals as atonement for sin. They cannot observe Yom Kippur according to the instructions provided in Leviticus chapter 16. Therefore, it is impossible for them to be righteous according to the covenant at Sinai. However, under the New Covenant provided by the shed blood and death of the Messiah, all can be righteous.
One final note: It is the Messiah who is righteous (Isaiah 11:5, Jeremiah 23:5-6). He alone is the perfect candidate as the subject of Isaiah 53:11.
"But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed." -Isaiah 53:5
Since the anti-missionaries believe that the Gentile kings are speaking of Israel in this verse, the phrase "and with his stripes we are healed" presents a problem for them. The reason is because the Scriptures do not teach that the Gentile nations are healed as a result of Israel's sufferings. Is there evidence in the world today that would suggest that this is true? Would it be reasonable to assert that somehow Almighty God has healed or rewarded the Gentile nations because they have been the source of Israel's pains and afflictions throughout the centuries? Of course not!
Isaiah 53:5 does not teach that the Gentile nations are healed as a result of Israel's sufferings; it teaches that Israel is healed from their sins as a result of the Messiah's sufferings.
"He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth." -Isaiah 53:7
Judaism claims that Israel is the subject of this verse. However, does the Bible teach that they were mute and without complaint when under torment, oppression and affliction? To the contrary, not only do the Scriptures teach that Israel complained and cried out, but there were times when they cried out to God for vengeance. Here are a few examples:
Once again, the Bible teaches that Israel fails to meet Isaiah 53's requirements since they complained while under affliction. However, it should be mentioned that all of us have a tendency to cry out to Almighty God when under torment and oppression. This is a human characteristic that we all possess. These illustrations are not intended to fault Israel in any way. To the contrary, to demonstrate that they fail to meet the contingencies, stipulations and conditions within the entire chapter.
"He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken." -Isaiah 53:8
In this verse, the prophet reveals that God's servant would be cut off for "my people." God's people and Isaiah's people are Israel. In verses such as Zechariah 2:11 KJV, which is the equivalent to Zechariah 2:15 in the 1917 JPS, the LORD call's other nations "my people" only during the Messiah's reign.
Israel is called "my people" just a few verses prior to this fourth Servant Song. Isaiah 52:4-6 states:
There is no indication that the speaker has changed between Isaiah 52:4-6 and Isaiah 53:8, where the LORD speaks and refers to Israel as my people. Therefore, the only logical conclusion that can be made is that Isaiah 53:8 foretells of someone who would be cut off and killed for the transgressions of my people, Israel. Therefore, the Gentile nations cannot be the "my people" of Isaiah 53:8.
"He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken. (9) And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth." -Isaiah 53:8-9
Though this passage seemingly teaches that this servant would be killed, i.e., "cut off out of the land of the living" since "he made his grave with the wicked," Judaism's anti-missionaries maintain an entirely different viewpoint. They claim that in this passage, Isaiah prophesies of Israel's exile into Babylon and their separation from the land. According to them, Israel is the land of the living. Contrary to their position, the Book of Isaiah does not refer to Israel as the land of the living since he calls Israel a dry and thirsty ground in earlier passages:
How can Israel be referred to as the land of the living in Isaiah 53:8 when the Scriptures teach that it is a dry ground? On a dry ground nothing can grow. It is lifeless! Therefore, Judaism's interpretation that the land of the living is Israel must be deemed incorrect since a dry ground cannot bear life.
In reality, when this servant is cut off or separated from the land of the living, it refers to his death. This is supported by the following verse, Isaiah 53:9, which states that "he made his grave with the wicked." Quite clearly, this servant would lose his life and be killed!
"And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth." -Isaiah 53:9
Isaiah 53:9 testifies that this servant "had done no violence." Here, the Hebrew word for violence is chamac, Strong's 2555. Chamac refers to false injustice and unrighteous violence. According to Ezekiel 12:19, Israel possessed chamac. Therefore, it is again disqualified!
Since Israel is disqualified as the subject of this chapter because of their unrighteous violence, Judaism's anti-missionaries may attempt to also disqualify Jesus by claiming that He was also violent, citing Matthew 21:12-13, Mark 11:15-17 and Luke 19:45-46. In response to their accusations, when Jesus turned over the moneychangers in the temple, He did not exhibit 'unrighteous violence.' He said, "It is written, My house shall be called the house of prayer: but ye have made it a den of thieves." Jesus cited Isaiah 56:7 indicating that God's house should be a house of prayer (not a place for marketing and selling for profit). Therefore, according to the Scriptures, Jesus' anger was justified and NOT unrighteous.
"And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth." -Isaiah 53:9
According to Isaiah 53:9, this servant has no deceit. Do the Scriptures reveal that Israel has deceit? Jeremiah 5:27-31 speaks of Israel in the following manner:
Regarding Israel, Jeremiah 8:5 reaffirms, "Why then is this people of Jerusalem slidden back by a perpetual backsliding? they hold fast deceit, they refuse to return."
These Scriptures provide the evidence that Israel has deceit. Therefore, it is once again eliminated as the subject of Isaiah 53.
"Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors." -Isaiah 53:12
According to this verse, he "made intercession for the transgressors." An intercessor is a priest. From the beginning Israel, as a nation, lost its priesthood when it was given to the tribe of Levi. Hosea 4:1,6 reveals that the nation will no longer be priest:
Since Hosea 4:1,6 indicates that Israel will no longer be a priest to God, how can Isaiah 53 be about them since the subject must make intercession for transgressors?
"So shall he sprinkle [yazeh] many nations; the kings shall shut their mouths at him: for that which had not been told them shall they see; and that which they had not heard shall they consider." -Isaiah 52:15 (KJV)
In this verse, the Hebrew word yazeh, a form of the verb nazah, is used. Throughout the entire Scriptures, this word is used a total of twenty-four times. In the King James Bible, it translates sprinkle all 24 times. However, in the Jewish Publication Society Bible, this word translates sprinkle 23 times. The only exception is at Isaiah 52:15, where it translates startle. As a result, the translation of Isaiah 52:15 in the Jewish Publication Society Bible reads, "So shall he startle many nations..." Because of this, the true meaning of Isaiah 53 becomes obscure and vague for those who own a Bible containing this obvious inconsistency.
In addition to Isaiah 52:15, the word yazeh or nazah is used in Exodus 29:21, Leviticus 4:6, Leviticus 4:17, Leviticus 5:9, Leviticus 6:27 (twice), Leviticus 8:11, Leviticus 8:30, Leviticus 14:7, Leviticus 14:16, Leviticus 14:27, Leviticus 14:51, Leviticus 16:14 (twice), Leviticus 16:15, Leviticus 16:19, Numbers 8:7, Numbers 19:4, Numbers 19:18, Numbers 19:19, Numbers 19:21, 2Kings 9:33 and Isaiah 63:3.
Based upon these illustrations, the question should be asked: Why would Isaiah use the word yazeh in a manner inconsistent with its previous usage in the Torah? The answer: he would not and should not! This word properly translates 'sprinkle.'
It is important to realize that Judaism's defenders fail to provide another verse where yazeh or nazah translates startle in the Scriptures. For them, the incorrect translation of this word is an exception. For believers in Jesus as the Messiah, the consistent translation of this word is the rule! Nonetheless, the anti-missionaries will insist that yazeh translates startle in Isaiah 52:15 for obvious reasons: If it translates sprinkle in Isaiah 52:15, the question becomes, sprinkle with what? This is a question that they would rather not address, the blood shed at the crucifixion by Jesus of Nazareth. Therefore, Judaism must remain firm that this word properly translates 'startle,' which is an exception to the rule!
"Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand." -Isaiah 53:10
Throughout the centuries, millions of righteous Jews have been killed. Since this verse states that "it pleased the LORD to bruise him," is God content that His chosen people have been needlessly slaughtered? Could Israel be the subject of this verse?
Ezekiel 33:11 reveals that the LORD takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked. Therefore, why would He be pleased with the deaths of the righteous?
Once again, the Scriptures eliminate Israel as the subject of Isaiah 53. Only the Messiah qualifies! The reason why God is pleased with the suffering death of the Messiah is that, through Him, mankind's sins are forgiven. The entire world can now be reconciled with its Beloved Creator!
Besides these eleven clear illustrations why Israel cannot possibly be the subject of Isaiah 53, there are three misrepresentations made by Judaism's defenders in their attempts to justify Israel as the subject of Isaiah's fourth Servant Song. They are as follows:
"He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken." -Isaiah 53:8
The Hebrew-to-English translation of the last portion of this verse reads, "…because of the rebellion of my people, the blow to him/to them."
The word in question is lamo. Depending on the context in which it is used, it can either translate 'to him' or 'to them.' Regarding Isaiah 53:8, Judaism's anti-missionaries insist that this word translates 'to them' in support of their claim that collective Israel is the suffering servant. However, there is clearly a single death because Isaiah refers to a single individual, he, not they, who was cut off out of the land of the living. Additionally, the following verse (Isaiah 53:9) refers to a single grave or tomb. As a result, Isaiah 53:8 foretells that a single servant would take the punishment that should have fallen on my people [Israel]. Therefore, the context of lamo is singular.
Finally, the position held by Judaism's anti-missionaries regarding the translation of the word lamo in this verse is refuted and thwarted by their own Orthodox community. According to the 1917 JPS Bible, a single individual took the punishment. Isaiah 53:8 translates, "…For he was cut off out of the land of the living, For the transgression of my people to whom the stroke was due." Additionally, the Soncino translation of Isaiah, a highly respected translation, similarly renders Isaiah 53:8 as follows, "…For he was cut off from the land of the living, stricken for the transgression of my people."
"And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death/deaths; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth." -Isaiah 53:9
Judaism's defenders are quick to point out that the word for death(s) in this verse is plural, not singular. Although they are absolutely correct, many Hebrew nouns use a plural in this manner to describe a state of being for a singular individual. For example, the word deaths is used in Ezekiel 28:8, 10 while referring to a single individual, the prince of Tyrus:
In Ezekiel 28:8, a singular death is being compared to the deaths of those who are slain in the midst of the seas. Moreover, Ezekiel 28:10 compares a single death to the deaths of the uncircumcised.
In like manner, Isaiah 53:9 compares a single death with the deaths [plural] of the rich (plural). There is a singular death because there is a singular grave (his grave or tomb, not their graves or tombs). The context is decisive!
The 1917 JPS Bible seemingly supports this position. It translates Isaiah 53:9 in the following manner, "And they made his grave with the wicked, And with the rich his tomb [singular] Although he had done no violence, Neither was any deceit in his mouth." Furthermore, the Soncino translation of Isaiah 53:9 reaffirms and supports the translation of the Christian Bibles as follows, "And they made his grave among the wicked, and his tomb among the rich; although he had done no violence, and there was no deceit in his mouth."
The conclusion based on this supporting evidence is as follows: According to Isaiah 53:9, the word for death(s) is in the plural. However, it is connected with the rich [plural]. Since there is a single grave since he [singular] made his grave [singular] with the rich [plural], a single death of a single servant is being likened to the deaths of the rich.
"Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand." -Isaiah 53:10
Some of Judaism's defenders are quick to point out that Jesus never had children. Therefore according to them, he cannot be the subject of this verse since it states that he "shall see his seed."
Because the throne of David must be completely fulfilled with the Messiah, He cannot and will not have children. Therefore, Jesus qualifies! Here is the explanation of this passage: The phrase, "he shall see his seed" refers to Almighty God seeing His Son. Here, the Hebrew word zera, Strong's 2233 is used and translated seed. Although this word can refer to a physical seed, it can also translate child or offspring. These illustrations are found in Leviticus 22:13 and 1Samuel 1:11 as follows:
Regarding Isaiah 53:10, the LORD seeing his seed and prolonging his days applies to the resurrection of Jesus Christ, God's begotten Son, since it states in Romans 10:9 and in Galatians 1:1 the following:
With all of these illustrations, there is only one logical conclusion that can be made: There is only one Servant who qualifies as the subject of Isaiah 53, and it is not Israel! Though they have suffered throughout the centuries, they fail to meet any of the requirements specified in Isaiah's fourth Servant Song. Only King Messiah, Jesus of Nazareth, meets all of the necessary provisions and qualifications.
Finally, these illustrations were not meant to fault Israel in any way. The intent was to demonstrate that they are not the subject of Isaiah 53.
Notes
| 33. | John McTernan & Louis Ruggiero in their book: Jesus of Nazareth: King Messiah, chapter 8, pp 117-132 (Oklahoma City, OK: Hearthstone Publishing, 2002). |